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Rhetoric Analysis

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Introduction When in the course of human events, it becomes necessary for one man to dissolve the social bonds by which an entire people is restricted from the truth. He holds this truth to be self-evident, that all men are to be judged as equal, that they are led by their creator through certain unalienable aspects of humanity, that among these are life, sin, and the pursuit of the gospel. Romans is a declaration, a declaration of dependence. Paul writes this letter concerning the truth of the gospel of Jesus Christ to all people. The following exegesis covers Paul’s discourse in 2:12-16 regarding God’s equal judgment of Jews and Gentiles. So as to understand Paul’s challenging rhetoric, a brief gaze into the historical context of Jews in …show more content…

In the Greek, this word is anarthrous and is thus possibly an intentional grouping of specific Gentiles but not necessarily Christian Gentiles. Augustine, Luther, Konig, Jewett, and Cranfield all held that Paul was referring Gentile Christians in this verse. Moo, Dunn, Fitzmyer, and Schreiner among others see simply the Gentiles as the referent. What difference in the interpretation of the passage is made in the distinction between Gentiles and Gentiles Christians? Ultimately, determining who Paul is referring to here is not of upmost importance and does not change the fact that God judges all. Interestingly, Achtemeier does not focus on his view of the identity of the referent but instead looks at fuvsei and its impact on the interpretation of the text. Typically, the text is punctuated likewise, “When Gentiles, who do not possess the law, do instinctively what the law requires…” Achtemeier as well as Konig, hold the passage to punctuated in this way, “When Gentiles, who do not possess the law instinctively, do what the law requires…” A question concerning the typical translation arises as to whether a Gentile can ‘instinctively’ or ‘by nature’ do what the law requires. This is where Paul uses novmoV in terms of God’s moral standards instead of strictly referring to the Mosaic law. Concerning this, Moo puts it well, “He (Paul) is not saying that they need no law to guide them but that …show more content…

In short, God judges those under the law as well as those apart from the law. Those who do the law, as opposed to those who simply hear the law, are justified. Despite not having the Jewish law, Gentiles have God’s divine moral standards upon which they are judged according to the gospel.
Snodgrass states that many of the differing points of view above merely explain the passage away or ‘dance’ around the issue. Also, some tend to pull away from the concept of ‘works righteousness’ in order to not diminish the redemptive work of Christ on the cross. The power of this text to its original audience cannot be downplayed. The Jewish Christians in Rome would have been shocked to hear their superiority being softened. Ultimately, this text shows the power of God’s grace and His judgment. Yet, by God’s grace we are permitted to live in a manner that spares us from condemnation from that

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