Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend.
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- Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend.
- Explain how to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock.
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- Why do call options with exercise prices greater than the price of the underlying stock sell for positive prices?My question is for a synthetic call option why do we need to borrow the present value of the strike price and what does it mean in a simple language explanation. Similarly why do we need to lend the present value of the stock at risk-free rate and what does it mean in simple language explanation? Please also clarify the significance of risk free rate? Why is it used in put call parity. Synthetic Call Option: If an investor believes that a call option is over-priced, then he/she can sell the call on the market and replicate a synthetic call. Borrow the present value of the strike price at the risk free rate and purchase the underlying stock and a put. Synthetic Put Option: Similar to the synthetic call option. A synthetic put can be created by re-arranging the put-call parity relationship, if the trader believes the put is overvalued. Synthetic Stock: A synthetic stock can also be created by rearranging the put-call parity identity. In this case, the investor will buy the…Michael Weber, CFA, is analyzing several aspects of option valuation, including the determinants of the value of an option, the characteristics of various models used to value options, and the potential for divergence of calculated option values from observed market prices.a. What is the expected effect on the value of a call option on common stock if the volatility of the underlying stock price decreases? If the time to expiration of the option increases?b. Using the Black-Scholes option-pricing model and an estimate of stock return volatility, Weber calculates the price of a 3-month call option and notices the option’s calculated value is different from its market price. With respect to Weber’s use of the Black-Scholes option-pricing model,i. Discuss why the calculated value of an out-of-the-money European option may differ from its market price.ii. Discuss why the calculated value of an American option may differ from its market price.
- Select all that are true with respect to the Black Scholes Option Pricing Model (OPM) in practice): Group of answer choices BSOPM assumes that the volatility of the underlying stock returns is constant over time. BSOPM assumes that the underlying stock can be traded continuously. BSOPM assumes that there are no transaction costs. There is only one input to the BSOPM that is not observable at the time you are valuing a stock option, and that input is volatility. Implied volatility is estimated by calculating the daily volatility of the underlying stock’s return that occurred over the prior six months.If there is a stock which is substantially overvalued, where it should plot relatively to the SML? Critically explain what should happen to that stock in equilibrium if a competitive market.1. (a) Describe the defining features of call and put options and explain intuitively using an example why call and put options are more valuable the greater their underlying stock's variability.
- Part I. Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend. Explain how to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock. Part II. Indicate whether each of the following two statements below is true, false or uncertain and justify your response. It is theoretically impossible for an out-of-money European call and an in-the-money European put to be trading at the same price. Both options are written on the same non-dividend paying stock. A 3-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $3.80. The stock price is $48.0, the strike price is $51, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum (continuous compounding). There is no arbitrage opportunity in this scenario.Explain in detail with an example how the change of the variables (like Stock Price, Exercise Price, Risk-Free Rate, Volatility or Standard Deviation, and Time to Expiration) of Black-Scholes-Merton Formula affect the price of the option.Explain in your own words what dynamic hedging is, and how a trader could profit by dynamically hedging an option if they have a forecast of volatility that is different to implied volatility.
- Consider two put options on the same stock with the same time to maturity. The strike price of Put A is less than the strike price of Put B. Which of the following is true? O It is possible for Put A to be in the money and Put B to be out of the money. O It is possible for Put A to be out of the money and Put B to be in the money. One of the options must be in the money. All of the other answers are correct.How to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock?Both call and put options are affected by the following five factors: the exercise price, the underlying stock price, the time to expiration, the stock’s standard deviation, and the risk-free rate. However, the direction of the effects on call and put options could be different. Use the following table to identify whether each statement describes put options or call options. Statement Put Option Call Option 1. When the exercise price increases, option prices increase. 2. An option is more valuable the longer the maturity. 3. The effect of the time to maturity on the option prices is indeterminate. 4. As the risk-free rate increases, the value of the option increases.